It’s really not though? Yeah, both are velar but a fricative doesn’t sound like a plosive at all. That’s like saying F is close to P, or S is close to T – do you often mix those up?
Edit: and to pre-empt any pedantry from anyone, yes I know that in English P is a bilabial while F is a labiodental, shut up, close enough, both are still labials
That’s not a valid comparison at all, and it’s not pedantic to point that out no matter how preemptively you claim that it is.
Bilapial ≠ lapiodental! It’s not that hard to understand.
The entire similarity between K and the German Ch is based on them both being velar (and unvoiced). You’re crafting a strawman by focusing on the “fricative and plosive” manner while ignoring that the sound is made at the same place.
S and T are almost a better comparison because they’re both technically alveolar, but that ignores the fact that S has a dental component. Try making a T sound and then an S sound without moving your teeth. It won’t work.
It’s really not though? Yeah, both are velar but a fricative doesn’t sound like a plosive at all. That’s like saying F is close to P, or S is close to T – do you often mix those up?
Edit: and to pre-empt any pedantry from anyone, yes I know that in English P is a bilabial while F is a labiodental, shut up, close enough, both are still labials
That’s not a valid comparison at all, and it’s not pedantic to point that out no matter how preemptively you claim that it is.
Bilapial ≠ lapiodental! It’s not that hard to understand.
The entire similarity between K and the German Ch is based on them both being velar (and unvoiced). You’re crafting a strawman by focusing on the “fricative and plosive” manner while ignoring that the sound is made at the same place.
S and T are almost a better comparison because they’re both technically alveolar, but that ignores the fact that S has a dental component. Try making a T sound and then an S sound without moving your teeth. It won’t work.
So your argument is that all sounds made in the same place sound the same?
Korean for example doesn’t have an F sound, a lot of loanwords that have an F sound use P instead, France turns into Prangseu and coffee to copy.
Sure, but does that mean F soudns like P?
In Dutch, a T is sometimes pronounced S
Politie (police) is pronounced polisie for example
In the word politiek (politics) it remains a T sound
Democratie -> democrasie
Etcetera
Again, does that mean that T sounds like S? Do you often confuse T for S? Would you say “shit” sounds the same as “shis”?
You find that in a lot of european languages, even in English almost everything that ends in -tion is pronounced -shon.